Free Sample NPTE Questions

Q. 1 Skeletal system is the biological system providing support in living organisms. It is a rigid framework that provides protection and structure in many types of animals as well as living beings, particularly those of the phylum Chordata and of the super phylum Ecdysozooa .It changes with the approximate varying age. Which is the true statement among the following?

a.       Increase in bone mass and density.

b.      Cartilage become strong and strong and defragment occurs.

c.       Bone marrow increases with red blood cell production.

d.      Ligaments and bones become weak and susceptible. 

Ans.D 

Explanation Bones are the main source of these minerals. If the loss of these minerals is not compensated, the bones become weak and susceptible to fractures. Phosphorus and mainly calcium are required for a number of processes in our body. It may cause osteoporosis. 

Q.2 Progressive Resistance Strength Training results in improvements to muscle strength and some aspects of functional limitation, such as gait speed, in older adults. However, based on current data, the effect of PRT on physical disability remains unclear. Further, due to the poor reporting of adverse events in trials, it is difficult to evaluate the risks associated with PRT. Which is the false statement among the following? 

a.       Significant improvements noted in frail, institutional sized 80 and 90 years.

b.      Improvements in strength correlate to improved functional abilities.

c.       Cervical flexor muscles exercise is not effective in reducing myoelectrincreases manifestations of superficial cervical flexor muscle fatigue in elders.

d.      Increase in strength noted in older adults with isometric and progressive resistive exercise regimes. 

Ans.C 

Explanation. An endurance-strength exercise regime for the cervical flexor muscles is effective in reducing my electric manifestations of superficial cervical flexor muscle fatigue as well as increasing cervical flexion strength in a group of patients with chronic non-severe neck pain. 

Q.3 Brain Morphology contribute to the significant association between the incidence of schizophrenia, increased left or mixed handedness, reduction in cerebral asymmetry and anomalies .Studies have shown that prenatal stress in elders can mimic these developments and behavioral alterations .They shows a reduced propensity to social interaction, increased anxiety or novel situation .Which is the false change among the following?

a.       Behavioral Abnormalities occurs due to Intervertebral discs: flatten, less resilient due to loss of water content (30% loss by age 65) and loss of collagen elasticity; trunk length.

b.      Generalized cell loss in cerebral cortex: especially frontal and temporal lobes, association areas.

c.       Presence of lipofuscins, senile or neuritic plaques, and neurofibrillary tangles (NFf).

d.      Decreased cerebral blood flow and energy metabolism. 

Ans.A 

Explanation. Behavioral abnormalities are associated with impaired regulation of the hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal axis response to stress and increased CRH activity. PS (prenatallity stressed) shows demasculinisation and feminization of their sexual behavior. The developmental and behavioral abnormalities in PS offspring could occur through sensitization of the fetal brain by maternal stress hormones to the action of glucocorticoid and CRH and to neurotransmitters affected by them. 

Q.4 The spinal cord is a long, thin, tubular bundle of nervous tissue and support cells that extends from the brain (the medulla specifically). The brain and spinal cord together make up the central nervous system. The spinal cord extends down to the space between the first and second lumbar vertebrae; it does not extend the entire length of the vertebral column. With ageing which is the approximate change seen in older people?

1. Slowed nerve conduction velocity: sensory greater than motor.
2. The disks do not lose their capacity to cushion.
3. Loss of sympathetic fibers: may account for diminished, autonomic stability.
4. Loss of motoneurons results in increase in size of remaining motor units.

 Ans.B 

Explanation. As people age, the disks between the back bones (vertebrae) become hard and brittle, and parts of the vertebrae may overgrow. As a result, the disks lose some of their capacity to cushion, so more pressure is put on the spinal cord and on the branches of the nerves that emerge from it (spinal nerve roots). The increased pressure may injure some nerve fibers in the spinal cord. 

Q.5 Tremor is caused by abnormalities in areas of the brain that control movement and does not occur as the result of disease. It is involuntary trembling involving a certain part of the body. Essential tremor (ET) is tremor that occurs with purposeful movement. Incidence is highest in people over the age of 60.Which is a false statement about tremor found in the elder people above the age of 60?

a.       Benign, slowly progressive; in late stages may limit function

b.      Isolated symptom, particularly in hands, head and voice

c.       Characterized as postural or kinetic, rarely resting

d.      Do not get worse with stress, caffeine. 

 

 

 

Ans D 

Explanation. Stress, fatigue, anger, fear, caffeine, and cigarettes may temporarily make this type of tremor worse. Stress and caffeine can make tremors worse. Avoid caffeinated drinks such as coffee, tea, and soda, and other stimulants. Exercise and counseling to reduce emotional stress may also help.

Alcoholic beverages in small quantities may decrease tremors but can lead to alcohol dependence and alcohol abuse. 

Q.6 Treatment may not be necessary unless the tremors interfere with your daily activities or cause embarrassment. Treatment depends on the cause. Tremors caused by a medical condition such as hyperthyroidism will likely get better when the condition is treated. Which is the incorrect statement to treat tremors?

 

a.       Improve health: diet, smoking cessation.

b.      Correction of medical problems: improve cerebral blood flow.

c.       Avoid Propranolol and Primidone.

d.      Allow for increased cautionary behaviors: provide adequate explanation, demonstration when teaching new movement skills.

Ans.C

Explanation. Propranolol- a drug that blocks the action of stimulating substances called                                                 neurotransmitters, particularly those related to adrenaline

Primidone- an anti-seizure drug that also control the function of some neurotransmitters. 

Q.7 Essential tremor is characterized by shaking during movement; the symptoms of Parkinson's disease include involuntary shaking at rest, muscle stiffness and freezing. Parkinson's disease is caused by a deficiency of the brain chemical dopamine, which is necessary for smooth and controlled muscular movement. Which is the not an appropriate movement of elder in tremor? 

1. Both reaction time and movement time are increased.
2. Speed and coordination are decreased; increased difficulties with fine motor control.
3. Gait abnormalities and Excellent mobility.
4. Complicated movements require more preparation, longer reaction and movement times.

 

Ans.C Explanation. The burden of movement disorder in older people reflects the increasing prevalence of neurodegenerative and vascular disease with age as well as the growing exposure to medication and the natural history of conditions such as essential tremor, which tend to worsen with age and precipitate medical presentation later in life. A complex and poorly understood relationship exists between motor control, disorders of mood and cognitive function. Therefore, involuntary movements are often associated with gait abnormalities and poor mobility and falls may be the presenting feature. 

Q.8 The brain and nervous system receive input from body parts as well as from the outside world. The central nervous system is also a means of transmitting messages throughout the body and functions somewhat like a computer system. The messages that are transmitted, however, affect functions such as muscle movement, coordination, learning, memory, emotion, behavior and thought. Which is not an age related change in the in elder’s sensory systems? 

a.       Person needs more light to see.

b.      Strain social interactions.

c.       Leads to decreased functional mobility, risk of injury.

d.      Leads to sensory deprivation, isolation, disorientation, confusion, appearance of senility. 

Ans.A 

Explanation. When the pupil gets smaller, the lens gets thicker and less transparent, resulting in less light reaching the retina. Many older adults have trouble seeing at dusk, making out objects in low-lighted areas, or telling one dark color from another. Thus, an older person needs more light to see well. 

Q.9 Significant losses to eyesight can reduce quality of life and threaten ability to live independently at home and in the community. There is a general decline in visual activity; gradual prior to sixth decade, rapid decline between ages 60 and 90.Which of the following is not a symptom of vision loss?

1. Decreased pupillary responses, size of resting pupil increases.
2. Decreased ability to adapt to dark and light.
3. Decreased sensitivity of corneal reflex: less sensitive to eye injury or infection.
4. An attached retina.

 

Ans.D 

Explanation. Floaters are common in the aging eye. Floaters are small irregular opaque objects drifting in the visual field. They are usually harmless, but occasionally may be mistaken for a detached retina. A detached retina is a serious condition that could mean permanent loss of sight unless treated immediately. 

 

Q.10 It is important for persons to give care to older adults to understand how age affects the eye, recognize the most common eye problems, and learn ways to deal with poor eyesight. Which is one of the false ways to come over this?

a.       Avoid the usage of Vitamin A.

b.      Work in adequate light, reduce glare; avoid abrupt changes in light.

c.       Assess for use of glasses, need for environmental adaptations.

d.      Use warm colors (yellow, orange, red) for identification and color coding. 

Ans.A 
 

Explanation. Vitamin A is necessary for good vision in dimly lighted areas. Vitamin A is found in yellow, dark green vegetables, milk, eggs, seafood, meat, wheat bran, and whole grains. 

Q.11 Pathology is the study and diagnosis of disease through examination of organs, tissues, bodily fluids, and whole bodies. Pathology also encompasses the related scientific study of disease processes, called general pathology. Which is not a reason in the following that causes loss of vision due to pathology?

1. Senile macular degeneration
2. Parkinson ’s disease.
3. Menieres Disease.
4. Onchocerciasis.

 Ans.A 

Explanation. Senile macular degeneration is a cause in loss of central vision associated with age-related degeneration of the macula compromised by decreased blood supply or abnormal growth of blood vessels under the retina; initially patients retain peripheral vision; may progress to total blindness. 

Q.12 The ability to hear clearly declines with age. Hearing loss often begins at a young age and progresses slowly during the 20s, 30s, and 40s. Most people do not notice hearing loss until they are in their 50s or 60s, when they begin to have a hard time hearing high frequency sounds. Which of the following is not a symptom of hearing problem?

1. Significant changes in sound sensitivity, understanding of speech.
2. Minimal degenerative changes of bony joints.

c.       Buildup of cerumen (ear wax) may result in conductive hearing loss

d.      Oculomotor responses diminished. 

 

 

Ans.D 

Explanation. Oculomotor responses related to the pupil light reflex (PLR) and saccadic velocity may be sensitive to the effects of sleepiness and therefore could be used to evaluate an individual's fitness for duty.  

Q.13 Family caregiver service providers and health care professionals often feel frustrated when trying to communicate with an older person who cannot hear well. Listening and following a conversation is tiring for someone with poor hearing. Which is not a hearing loss from the following?

a.       Arkinson’s disease or Alzheimer’s disease.

b.      Sensorineural.

c.       Presbycusis.

d.      Conductive. 

Ans.A 

Explanation. Parkinson's disease (also known as Parkinson disease or PD) is a degenerative disorder of the central nervous system that often impairs the sufferer's motor skills, speech, and other functions. Parkinson's disease belongs to a group of conditions called movement disorders.

Q.14 Inappropriate actions based upon missed information can lead to a feeling of paranoia. When older persons fail to answer when spoken too or if they give inappropriate answers to questions, they are sometimes considered confused or demented. Significant loss of hearing can cause older adults to feel cut off from friends and family. Which is one of the false ways to come over the hearing problem?

1. Measure air and bone conduction: Rinne test, Weber test.
2. Determine use of hearing aids; check for proper functioning.
3. Avoid Maskers.

d.      Orient person to topics of conversation they cannot hear to reduce paranoia, isolation. 

Ans.C 

Explanation. Tinnitus maskers are a broad range of devices which are used to add natural or artificial sound into a tinnitus sufferer's environment in order to suppress or mask the perceived ringing. These masker devices use soothing natural sounds such as ocean surf, rainfall or synthetic sounds such as white noise, pink noise, brown noise to help the auditory system to become less sensitive to tinnitus, and promote relaxation by reducing the contrast between tinnitus sounds and background sound. 

 

 

Q.15 Pathology is the study and diagnosis of disease through examination of organs, tissues, bodily fluids, and whole bodies. Pathology also encompasses the related scientific study of disease processes, called general pathology. Which is not a reason in the following that causes loss of vision due to pathology? 

a.       Hypothyroidism

b.      Paget's disease.

c.       Otosclerosis

d.      Glaucoma.

 Ans.D 

Explanation. Glaucoma is known by  increased intraocular pressure, with degeneration of optic disc, atrophy of optic nerve; results in early loss of peripheral vision (tunnel vision), progressing to total blindness. 
 

Q.16 Vestibular balance control shows degenerative changes in otoconia of utricle and saccule; loss of vestibular hair-cell receptors; decreased number of vestibular neurons. Which is not a factor of age change in vestibular balance control?

1. Reduced function of vestibular ocular reflex (VOR).

b.      Altered sensory organization: older adults more dependent upon somatosensory inputs for balance.

c.       Postural response patterns for balance are disorganized.

d.      Increased thresholds in vibratory sensibility. 

Ans.D 

Explanation. Proprioceptive losses, increased thresholds in vibratory sensibility are found in Somatosensory, beginning around age 50: greater in lower extremities than upper extremities, greater in distal extremities than proximal. 
 

Q.17 The human balance system depends on the inner ear, the eyes, and the muscles and joints to transmit reliable information about the body's movement and orientation in space. Which is the disease not caused by additional loss of vestibular sensitivity with pathology?

a.       Cerebrovascular disease.

a.       b.Cerebellar dysfunction.

b.      Presbycusis.

c.       Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo. 
 

 

Ans.C  

Explanation. Presbycusis a sensorineural hearing loss associated with middle and older ages; characterized by bilateral hearing loss, especially at high frequencies at first, then all frequencies; poor auditory discrimination and comprehension, especially with back ground noise; tinnitus. 

Q.18 The somatosensory system is a diverse sensory system comprising the receptors and processing centers to produce the sensory modalities such as touch, temperature, proprioception(body position), and nociception (pain). The sensory receptors cover the skin and epithelia, skeletal muscles, bones and joints, internal organs, and the cardiovascular system. Which is not a leading aging change due to Somatosensory aging change?

1. Proprioceptive losses, increased thresholds in vibratory sensibility.
2. Cutaneous pain thresholds increased: greater changes in upper body areas.
3. Loss of joint receptor sensitivity; losses in lower extremities, cervical joints may contribute to loss of balance.
4. Loss of power.

 

Ans.D 

Explanation. Loss of power is age related problem found in muscular system causes significant declines, due to losses in speed of contraction, changes in nerve conduction and synaptic transmission. 

Q.19 The somatosensory system consists of ascending pathways from the body to the postcentral gyrus in the cerebral cortex, namely the Dorsal Column Medial Lemniscal pathway, the Ventral Spinothalamic pathway, ventral and dorsal spinocerebellar tracts. Areas of the part of the human brain map to certain areas of the body, dependent on the amount or importance of somatosensory input from that area. Which is not a disease caused by disorder of Somatosensory system?

1. Otosclerosis.
2. Diabetes, peripheral neuropathy
3. CVA, central sensory losses
4. Peripheral vascular disease, peripheral ischemia.

 Ans.A 

Explanation. Otosclerosis is an additional hearing loss with pathology that involves immobility of stapes results in profound conductive hearing loss. 

 

 

Q.20 As mentioned above, Areas of the part of the human brain map to certain areas of the body, dependent on the amount or importance of somatosensory input from that area. Which is not a compensatory strategy to recover somatosensory system?

1. Use touch to communicate: maximize physical contact.
2. Allow extra time for responses with increased thresholds.
3. Measure air and bone conduction.
4. Teach compensatory strategies to prevent injury to anesthetic limbs, falls.

Ans.C 

Explanation. Measuring air and bone conduction is done to compensate or implicate hearing loss strategies. It helps to examine hearing: acuity, speech discrimination/comprehension; tinnitus, dizziness, vertigo, pain. 

Q.21 As the disorders of smell and taste are rarely life threatening, they may not receive close medical attention. Yet these disorders can be frustrating because they can affect the ability to enjoy food and drink and to appreciate pleasant aromas. Which one of the following can be a reason for taste and smell disorder?

a.       Head injury

b.      Leg injury.

c.       Diabetes.

d.      Headache. 

Ans.A 

Explanation. A common cause of permanent loss of smell is a head injury, as may occur in a car accident. Permanent loss of smell results when fibers of the olfactory nerves—the pair of cranial nerves that connect smell receptors to the brain—are damaged or sheared at the roof of the nasal cavity. The roof of the nasal cavity is formed by a bone (cribriform plate) that separates the brain from the nasal cavity. 

Q.22 Although our sense of smell is our most primal, it is also very complex.  For humans, odors communicate a variety of messages, depending on the odor and the person receiving it. Which is not a clinical implications or a compensatory strategy to prevent smell and taste disorder?

a.            Older adults frequently increase use of taste enhancers

b.            Decreased home safety.

c.            Examine ability to identify odors, tastes.

d.           Increase food to enjoy food and taste. 

 

Ans D- Explanation.  It is necessary to decrease food and taste as enjoyment of food leads to poor diet and nutrition. 

Q.23 Most common mental disorders affect cognitive functions, mainly memory processing, perception and problem solving. The most direct cognitive disorders are amnesia, dementia and delirium. Cognitive disorders are mental disorders that develop on the basis of cognitive mental disorder perspective. Which is not an age related change in cognition among the following?

a.       decline in measures of intelligence occur in the year immediately preceding death

b.      (by age 39); require longer times to complete tasks.

c.       Impairments of memory are typically noted in short-term memory; long-term memory retained.

d.      Changes in intellectual abilities typically show up till mid 60s. 

Ans.D 

Explanation. No uniform decline in intellectual abilities throughout adulthood can be seen. Changes do not typically show up until mid 60s; significant declines affecting everyday life do not show up until early 80s years of life. 

Q.24 Learning is acquiring new knowledge, behaviors, skills, values or preferences. It may involve processing different types of information. Learning functions can be performed by different brain learning processes, which depend on the mental capacities. Which of the following factor is an obstacle in learning for the older people?

a.       Dentures.

b.      Increased cautiousness.

c.       Anxiety.

d.      Interference from prior learning. 

Ans.A 

Explanation. Dentures are prosthetic devices constructed to replace missing teeth, and which are supported by surrounding soft and hard tissues of the cavity. Dentures therefore do not play any role in learning obstacle. 
 

 

 

 

Q.25 Lifelong learning is the process of keeping your mind and body engaged, at any age, by actively pursuing knowledge and experience. The pursuit of knowledge through lifelong learning has wonderful benefits for adults 50-plus. Which of the following factor is not responsible to intervene to slow changes or enhance learning in older age?

a.       Increase mental activity.

b.      Improve health

c.       Reduction of stress: counseling and family support.

d.      d..Isolate from crowd. 

Ans.D 

Explanation. Crowd or social circle helps in auditing process or to explore more things. Therefore it is necessary to provide stimulating, "enriching" environment; avoid environmental dislocation to gain more learning. 

Q.26 The cardiovascular system is a closed tubular system in which the blood is propelled by the heart. The system has two circuits, the pulmonary circuit and the systemic circuit. Each circuit has arterial, capillary, and venous components. t is essentially a long, closed tube through which blood moves in a double circuit — one through the lungs (pulmonary circulation) and one through the rest of the body (systemic circulation).Which one of the following is an age related to cardiovascular disorder?

a.   Cardiac valves thicken and stiffen.

b.  Degeneration of heart muscle with accumulation of lipofuscins.

c.   Altered pulmonary gas exchange.

d.  Decline in neurohumoral control.

 

Ans.C 

Explanation. Altered pulmonary gas exchange is generally an age related issue due to pulmonary disorder that causes: oxygen tension falls with age (at a rate of 4mmHg/decade; Pa02 at age 70 is 75, versus 90 at age 20). 

 

Q.27 The cardiovascular system is formed by the heart, arteries, and veins. In connection to the respiratory system, the cardiovascular system provides oxygen to cell and collect carbon dioxide (CO2).  It also helps on the transportation of hormones, wastes. It is responsible for the circulation of the blood that carries all the substances to and from the cell. With the blood circulating the temperature of the body is also affected. Which of the following is not a correct clinical implication for cardio logical system?

a.       Blunted, decrease in heart rate acceleration, decrease maximal oxygen uptake and heart rate.

b.      Respiratory responses to exercise similar to younger adult at low and moderate intensities; at higher intensities.

c.       Decreased stroke volume due to decreased myocardial contractility.

d.      Orthostatic hypotension.

 

Ans B 

Explanation. In Pulmonary System Respiratory responses to exercise similar to younger adult at low and moderate intensities; at higher intensities is generally found as a basic clinical implication. This includes increased ventilatory cost of work, greater blood acidosis, increased likelihood of breathlessness, and increased perceived exertion. 

Q.28 The Integrated system of organs involved in the intake and exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between an organism and the environment. In humans, the diaphragm and, to a lesser extent, the muscles between the ribs generate a pumping action, moving air in and out of the lungs through a system of pipes (conducting airways), divided into upper and lower airway systems. Which one of the following is not a pulmonary system age related disorder? 

a.       Loss of lung elastic recoil, decreased lung.

b.      Changes in blood vessels

c.       Forced expiratory volume (air flow) decrease

d.      Blunted defense/immune responses. 

Ans. B 

Explanation Changes in blood vessels is a cardiovascular disorder when arteries gets thicken, less distensible; slowed exchange capillary walls; increased peripheral resistance. supply

Q29 In the following which is not a clinical implication of Pulmonary System Disorder? 

a.       Cough mechanism is impaired.

b.      Gag reflex is decreased, increased risk of aspiration.

c.       Provide augmented feedback through appropriate sensory channels.

d.      Recovery from respiratory illness. 

Ans.B 

Explanation; It is a clinical implication of somatosensory to provide augmented feedback through appropriate sensory channels, e.g., walking on carpeted surfaces may be easier than on smooth floor. 

Q.30 Complete cardiopulmonary examination prior to commencing an exercise program is essential in older adults due the high incidence of cardiopulmonary pathologies. Which is the incorrect mode for the Interventions to slow or reverse changes in cardiopulmonary system? 

a.   Selection of appropriate exercise tolerance testing protocol (ETT) is important.

b.  Individualized exercise prescription essential.

c.   Aerobic training programs can significantly improve cardiopulmonary function in the elderly.

d.  Ignore circuit training.

Ans.D 

Explanation. Consider multiple modes of exercise (circuit training) on alternate days to reduce likelihood of muscle injury, joint overuse, pain, and fatigue. 

Q.31 Aerobic training programs can significantly improve cardiopulmonary function in the elderly age. Which of the following is not an advantage of aerobic training? 

a.   Improves recovery heart rates.

b.  Increase maximum ventilatory capacity: vital capacity.

c.   Reduces breathlessness, lowers perceived exertion.

d.  Increase systolic blood pressure.

Ans.d 

Explanation. Decreases in systolic blood pressure that is require for producing a small decrease in diastolic blood Pressure which is beneficial. 

Q.32 The integumentary system has a variety of functions; it may serve to waterproof, cushion and protect the deeper tissues, excrete wastes, regulate temperature and is the attachment site for sensory receptors to detect pain, sensation, pressure and temperature. In humans the integumentary system additionally provides vitamin D synthesis. what cannot be found as a major skin change in integumentary system?  

a.   Dermis thins with loss of elastin.

b.  Decreased sebaceous activity and decline in hydration.

c.   Nails grow fast.

d.  skin appears dry and wrinkled.

Ans C. 

Explanation- Nails grow more slowly, become brittle and thick due to decreased vascularity. 
 

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Q33. What is the role of a primary care physician (PCP) in Primary Care .Primary Care is the Basic or "first level", health care provided on an outpatient basis.

 

a Gate keeper

b. Physical therapists

c. Nurse             

d. physician specialists

 

Ans:a

 

Explanation: The PCP is the "gatekeeper" to other sub specialists, including physical therapy. Physical therapists support primary care teams through examination, evaluation, diagnosis, prognosis, and prevention of musculoskeletal and neuromuscular disorders.

 

 

Q34. Chronic Care Facility (long term care facility) is the long term care facility providing services to patients for 60 days or longer. What type of patient requires Chronic Care Facility?

 

a.       Patients that are not in an acute phase of illness, but require skilled care on an inpatient basis.

b.      patients with permanent or residual disability caused by a non-reversible pathological health condition

c.       provided  to out patients

d.      patients with short term illness or health problem.

 

Ans:b

 

Explanation: Chronic care refers to medical care which addresses preexisting or long term chronic medical conditions include, but are not limited to, asthma, emphysema, chronic bronchitis, and congestive heart disease, cirrhosis of the liver, hypertension and depression.

 

Q35. Custodial Care Facility means patient care that is not medically required but necessary for the patient who is unable to care for him/herself. Custodial care is provided by which of the following?

 

a.       non medical support staff

b.      Providers may be physicians, physician assistants, nurse practitioners, physical therapists, or others

c.       Provided by medical and nursing services as well as rehabilitative services

d.      Provided by highly specialized physicians in hospital setting.

 

 

 

Ans:a

 

Explanation: Custodial care may involve medical or non-medical services which do not seek a cure. This type of care is usually not covered under managed care plans. Daily care is delivered by nonmedical support staff.

 

 

 

Q36. Home Health Care is provided to individuals and their families in their homes. It is provided by a Home Health Agency, which may be governmental; voluntary or private; non-profit or for-profit. This is the reimbursable equipment in home health care;

 

a.       wheelchairs, commodes, hospital beds

b.      grab bars

c.       long handled utensils

d.      lights

 

Ans:a

 

Explanation: In home health care adaptive equipment ordered in the home is not reimbursable except for items such as wheelchairs, commodes, hospital beds, etc.

 

 

Q37. The United States Health Care System is a group of decentralized subsystems serving different populations. It is private ownership of health care delivery with relatively small federal and state governmental programs working in conjunction with a large private sector. What is the result of decentralization?

 

a.       lack of co-ordination

b.      patients are charged higher

a.       coverlap in some areas and competition in other areas of health care

b.      decrease in competition

 

Ans:C

 Explanation: Decentralization results in overlap in some areas and competition in others; therefore, health care is primarily a business that is market driven, especially for patients covered by managed care insurance.

 

 

Q38. Health care is a highly regulated industry with most regulations mandated by law, at both the state and federal levels. Standards related to safety are set forth by which division?

 

a. Center for Medicare & Medicaid Services

b. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

c. Individual states

d. Local or county entities

 

Ans: b

Explanation: The safety of employees and consumers is regulated by OSHA standards for handling infectious materials, and blood products, controlling blood borne pathogens, operating machinery and handling hazardous substances.

 

Q39. Legally mandated regulations of health care are set forth by the Center for Medicare & Medicaid Services, a division of U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. What happens to the facilities that repeatedly fail to meet CMS guidelines?

 

a.       have to pay penalty

b.      are given warnings

c.       their management passes to government

d.      may lose their Medicare and/or Medicaid certification(s) (e.g., "provider status").

 

Ans:d

Explanation: Facilities that participate in Medicare and/or Medicaid programs are monitored regularly for compliance with CMS guidelines by federal and state surveyors.

 

 

 

Q40. Accreditation is a status awarded for compliance with standards and regulations promulgated by the specific accrediting agency. Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities (CARF) is the voluntary agency that accredits which of the following facilities?

 

a.       hospitals, skilled nursing facilities (SNFs), home health agencies

b.      programs or agencies that serve persons with developmental disabilities

c.       free-standing rehabilitation facilities and the rehabilitative programs of larger hospital systems

d.      home health and community nursing agencies that offer nursing and other health services outside hospitals, extended care facilities and nursing homes

 

Ans:c

Explanation: Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities (CARF) is the voluntary agency that accredits free-standing rehabilitation facilities and the rehabilitative programs of larger hospital systems in the areas of behavioral health, employment (work hardening) and community support services and medical rehabilitation (spinal cord injury, chronic pain).

 

Q41. Accreditation affirms the competence of practitioners and the quality of health care facilities and organizations. How is accreditation is initiated in the accreditation process?

 

a.       submission of application by organization

b.      self-study or self-assessment

c.       on-site review

d.      survey conducted by the accrediting agency

 

Ans: a

 

Explanation: Accreditation is initiated by the organization submitting an application for review followed by a survey conducted by the accrediting agency

 

Q 42. Accreditation is a status awarded for compliance with standards and regulations promulgated by the specific accrediting which among the following voluntary agency that accredits programs or agencies that serve persons with developmental disabilities?

 

a.       Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities (CARF)

b.      Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Health Care Organizations (JCAHO

c.       National League for Nursing/American Public Health Association (NLN/APHA)

d.      Accreditation Council for Services for Mentally Retarded and Other Developmentally Disabled Persons (AC-MRDD)

 

Ans:D

 

Explanation: Accreditation Council for Services for Mentally Retarded and Other Developmentally Disabled Persons (AC-MRDD) is a voluntary agency that accredits programs or agencies that serve persons with developmental disabilities

 

 

 

Q43. Under Reimbursement; third Party Payers for Healthcare Services, Medicare Part A benefit includes which of the following?

 

a.       Physician visits.

a.       Outpatient laboratory tests and x-rays.

b.      Ambulance transportation

c.       Skilled nursing facilities - first 100 days.

 

Ans: d

Explanation: Medicare Part A benefits includes hospital insurance, covering skilled nursing facilities for first 100 days.

 

Q44 Medicaid is a joint state and federal program mandated by Title XIX of the Social Security Act. It provides health care services to which of the following individuals?

 

a.       Provides coverage for patients who have been on social security disability for 24 months

b.      With permanent kidney failure or other long term disabilities.

c.       Provides health care for individuals injured on the job.

d.      Provides health care services to the poor, elderly, and disabled who do not receive Medicare regardless of age

 

 

 

Ans: d

 

Explanation: Medicaid provides health care services to the poor, elderly, and disabled who do not receive Medicare regardless of age

 

Q.45 Under Reimbursement/third Party Payers for Healthcare Services, Medicare Part A benefit do not include which of the following?

 

a.       Skilled nursing facilities - first 100 days.

a.       Home health agencies (HHA).

b.      Hospice care.

c.       All medical expenses or the cost of long term care.

.

Ans:d

Explanation: Medicare Part A benefits Does not cover all medical expenses or the cost of long term care.

 

  

Q.46 .Under Reimbursement/third Party Payers for Healthcare Services, Medicare Part A benefit includes which of the following?

 

a.       Physician visits.

a.       Outpatient laboratory tests and x-rays.

b.      Ambulance transportation

c.       Home health agencies (HHA)..

 

Ans:d

Explanation: Medicare Part A benefits includes hospital insurance, covering Home health agencies (HHA).

Q 47. Managed Health Care Systems are third party payers direct patients to certain providers and monitor services to avoid excessive and inappropriate treatment and limit access. What is the ratio of cost of insurance in Co-insurance provided by HMO and PPO organization?

 

a.       70% paid by insurance company and 30% paid by insured.

a.       80% paid by insurance company and 20% paid by insured.

b.      60% paid by insurance company and 40% paid by insured.

c.       50% paid by insurance company and 50% paid by insured.

 

Ans: b

 

Explanation: Co-insurance is insured's share of the cost of the covered service which is expressed as a percentage, e.g., 80% paid by insurance company and 20% paid by insured.

 

 

 

 

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Q.48 Ultrasound is produced by the conversion of mechanical energy produced by sound waves at frequencies between 85 KHz and 3 MHz and delivered at intensities between 0 and 3 W/cm2 is absorbed by body tissues and changed to thermal energy. What converts electrical energy into

acoustical energy for ultrasound production?

 

 

a.       Alternating voltage

b.      Transducer

c.       Crystal

d.      Oscillating sound wave

 

Ans: b

 

Explanation: Transducer converts electrical energy into acoustical energy via reverse piezoelectric effect.

 

Q.49 Beam non uniformity ratio (BNR). This is the ratio of the spatial peak intensity to the spatial average intensity. What is the ideal Beam non uniformity ratio?

 

a.       1:2

b.      1:3

c.       1:5

d.      1:1

 

Ans:d

 

Explanation: The lower the BNR, the more uniform the energy distribution, the less risk of tissue damage. BNR should be between 2: 16: 1. An ideal 1: I ratio is not technically feasible.

 

Q50. Co-insurance is insured's share of the cost of the covered service. What is shared- risk in co-insurance?

 

a.       The insured may not utilize the service

b.      The insurer may run away without depositing his share

c.       The provider is at financial risk if services are over-utilized.

d.      The provider may not provide service

 

Ans:c

 

Explanation: The provider is at financial risk if services are over-utilized. This is called "shared-risk".

 

 

Q.1 Overload principle is used to enhance physiologic improvement and bring about a training change. Which is the correct statement regarding overload principle?

 

1. The appropriate overload for each person can be achieved by manipulating combinations of training frequency, intensity, and duration.
2. Specific exercise elicits specific adaptations creating specific training effects.
3. A cardio respiratory training effect can be achieved at a rating of "somewhat hard" or "hard" (13 to 16 on the original Borg scale of 6 to 19).
4. Training level or target heart rate (THR) can be established at 70% of maximum to increase aerobic capacity.

 

Ans.A

 

Explanation. In overload principle training adaptation occurs by exercising at a

level above normal by which the appropriate overload for each person can be achieved by manipulating combinations of training frequency, intensity, and duration.

 

Q.    2  FlIT equation includes factors that affect training; frequency, intensity, time and type. Intensity is interrelated with both duration (time) and frequency. In this aspect frequency is the number of exercise sessions per week. Which is the incorrect statement relating to frequency at FIIT?

 

1. If the intensity is constant, the benefit from 2 versus 4 or 3 versus 5 times per week is the same.
2. Less than 2 days per week does not produce adequate changes in aerobic capacity or body composition.
3. For weight loss, 5-7 days per week increases the caloric expenditure more than 2 days per week.
4. The Karvonen formula is used to predict heart rate reserve.

 

Ans.D

 

Explanation. Intensity (overload) is the primary way to improve cardiovascular endurance in which The Karvonen formula is used to predict heart rate reserve (HRR) or HR max minus the resting heart rate (RHR) and correlates directly to V02 max. THR = (HR max RHR) x % of desired training intensity + RHR.

 

Q.3 The intensity and duration of the work intervals and the length of the rest periods indictates the training response. Very short, all-out bouts of work coupled with longer rest periods are used for speed and speed endurance development. Which is the incorrect statement about intensity of cardiovascular endurance?

 

1. Relative intensity for an individual is calculated as a percentage of the maximum function.
2. The V02 max or HR max can be measured directly or indirectly based on different methods.
3. Rating of Perceived Exertion (RPE) can be used to evaluate training at relative levels.
4. The Karvonen formula is used to predict heart rate reserve.

 

Ans.C

 

Explanation. Rating of Perceived Exertion (RPE) can be used to evaluate training at submaximal levels. A cardiorespiratory training effect can be achieved at a rating of "somewhat hard" or "hard" (13 to 16 on the original Borg scale of 6 to 19). An appropriate level.An appropriate level of training should result in conversational exercise or "talk test"; moderate exercise that is not too strenuous and can improve endurance.

 

Q4 Duration of Exercise is the second component and refers to the time you've spent exercising. The cardio work out plan, not including the warm-up and cool-down, should vary from 20-60 minutes to gain significant cardiorespiratory work out plans and fat burning benefits. Which statement is incorrect in terms of duration of exercise?

 

1. Multiple sessions of short durations are also indicated when intensity is limited by environmental conditions.
2. Obese individuals should exercise at lower durations and longer intensities.
3. Obesity increases the mechanical work of the heart and can lead to cardiac and left ventricular dysfunction.
4. Duration is increased when intensity is limited.

 

Ans.B

 

Explanation. Obese individuals should exercise at longer durations and lower intensities. At this exercise level, the person can speak without gasping and does not have muscle ache or burn from lactic acid accumulation.

 

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Q. 5 Pulmonary rehabilitation traditionally consists of endurance-type exercises that do not maximally promote strength. This limits the effectiveness of pulmonary rehabilitation because improvement in strength is a key factor in maintaining function and independence, especially in older, frail adults. Keeping this in mind which statement is incorrect in context of Training Strategies to Develop Pulmonary

Endurance?

 

1. Pulmonary endurance is related to the ventilation of the lungs and oxygen consumption.
2. When exercising in humid versus dry environments, the exercise-induced asthmatic response is considerably reduced.
3. The problem is rare in activities that require only short bursts of activity, such as baseball and is more likely to occur in endurance activities such as soccer.
4. In severe pulmonary disease, the cost of breathing can reach 80% of the total exercise oxygen consumption.

 

Ans.D

 

Explanation. In severe pulmonary disease, the cost of breathing can reach 40% of the total exercise oxygen consumption. This would decrease the oxygen available to the exercising no respiratory muscles and limit exercise capabilities. Obesity can significantly increase the level of impairments.

 

Q.    5 Exercise induced asthma (EIA) can occur when the normal initial bronchodilatation is followed by bronchoconstriction. The reduction in airflow from airway obstruction affects the ability of the lungs to provide oxygen to exercising muscles. Which statement is incorrect in terms of EIA?

 

1. When a person mouth breathes, the air is cold and dry, contributing to the bronchoconstriction.
2. The problem is rare in activities that require only short bursts of activity.
3. When exercising in humid versus dry environments,the exercise-induced asthmatic response is considerably reduced.
4. EIA is an acute, reversible airway obstruction that develops 25 to 35 minutes after strenuous exercise.

 

Ans.D

 

Explanation. EIA is an acute, reversible airway obstruction that develops 5 to 15 minutes after strenuous exercise when a person does not breathe through the nose, which warms and humidifies the air.

 

Q6 Aerobic training (cardio respiratory endurance training) can result in higher fitness levels for healthy individuals, slow the decrease in functional capacity in the elderly, and recondition those that have been ill or have chronic disease. Which statement is a Positive effect of aerobic training on the cardiovascular and respiratory systems?

 

1. Increase total hemoglobin and oxygen delivery capacity.
2. Increase cardiac output and stroke volume.
3. Increase resting and sub maximal exercise heart rates.
4. Increase total hemoglobin and oxygen delivery capacity.

 

Ans.C

 

Explanation- Aerobic Training Decrease resting and sub maximal exercise heart rates. Can be utilized to measure improvements from aerobic training.

 

Q.7 Continuous training is a sub maximal energy requirement that can be prolonged for 20 to 60 minutes without exhausting the oxygen transport system. Which statement is incorrect in terms of continuous training?

 

1. In healthy individuals, continuous training is the most effective way to improve endurance.
2. Overload can be accomplished by increasing the exercise duration.
3. Work rate is increased progressively as training improvements are achieved.
4. The relief interval can be passive or active; its duration ranges from a few seconds to several minutes.

 

Ans.D

 

Explanation. Interval training includes relief interval that can be passive or active; its duration ranges from a few seconds to several minutes. Active or work recovery involves doing the exercise at a reduced level.

 

Q.                8 Circuit training is a combination of high-intensity aerobics and resistance training designed to be easy to follow and target fat loss, muscle building and heart fitness. An exercise "circuit" is one completion of all prescribed exercises in the program. When one circuit is complete, one begins the first exercise again for another circuit. Which statement is incorrect in terms of circuit training?

 

1. Several exercise modes can be utilized involving large and small muscle groups both statically and dynamically.
2. Circuit training improves endurance and strength by stressing the aerobic and anaerobic energy systems.
3. Provides maximum time for an instructor to ensure that the activity remains safe.
4. Can be customized for specificity; easy to adapt to your sport.

 

Ans.C

 

Explanation. Reduced station times will encourage the participants to lift heavier weights, which mean they can achieve overload with a smaller number of repetitions: typically in the range of 4 to 12 depending on their training goals. However, this provides little time for an instructor to ensure that the activity remains safe and effective by observing technique, posture, and form.

 

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Q.9 Interval training includes an exercise period followed by a prescribed rest interval. It is perceived to be less demanding than continuous training and tends to improve strength and power more than endurance. Which is the incorrect statement in terms of interval training?

 

1.  Minimum amount of high-intensity work can be achieved.
2. The longer the work interval, the more the aerobic system is stressed and the duration of the rest period is not important.
3. The relief interval can be passive or active; its duration ranges from a few seconds to several minutes.
4. In a short work interval, a work-recovery ratio of 1: 1 to 1:5 is appropriate to stress the aerobic system.

 

Ans.A

 

Explanation. With appropriate spacing of work-relief intervals, a significant amount of high-intensity work can be achieved. The total amount of work completed with interval training is greater than the amount of work accomplished with continuous training.

 

Q.10 The purpose of a warm-up and cool down is to encourage the adjustments to occur gradually, by commencing your exercise session at an easy level and increasing the intensity gradually. Each exercise session includes a 5-15 minute warm-up and a SIS minute cool-down period. Which statement is incorrect in terms of Warm up and cool down sessions?

 

1. The warm-up period prevents the heart and circulatory system from being suddenly taxed.
2. Longer warm-up and cool-down periods may be needed for deconditioned or older individuals.
3. The cool-down period consists of exercising at a higher intensity.
4. Primes your nerve-to-muscle pathways to be ready for exercise.

 

Ans.C

 

Explanation. The cool-down period consists of exercising at a lower intensity. It reduces abrupt physiologic alterations that can occur with sudden cessation of strenuous exercise; e.g., venous pooling in the lower extremities which causes decreased venous return to the heart.

 

Q11 Some weight trainers perform light, high-repetition exercises in an attempt to "tone" their muscles without increasing their size Which is not a common error related to Common Errors Associated with Muscular, Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Endurance Training?

 

1. Lack of exercise tolerance testing (ETT) before the exercise prescription is determined could result in a training program set too high or too low for an individual.
2. Increasing intensity too fast can create a problem for an individual during endurance training.
3. Exercising at too intense a level can use the anaerobic energy system not aerobic system.
4. There is adequate time to prepare for or recover from higher intense activity.

 

Ans.D

 

Explanation. Insufficient warm-up or cool-down results in inadequate cardio respiratory and muscular adaptation; there is inadequate time to prepare for or recover from higher intense activity.

 

Q.12 The body's adaptation to high altitude exercise helps significantly but doesn't fully compensate for the lack of oxygen. There is a drop in VO2 max of 2% for every 300 m elevation above 1500 m even after allowing for full acclimatization. Which statement is incorrect in terms of exercises at high altitudes?

 

1. The partial pressure of oxygen is reduced resulting in poor oxygenation of hemoglobin.
2. Body fluids can be rapidly increases through desertion.
3. At altitudes of 6,000 feet (2,000 m) or higher there can be a noticeable drop in performance of aerobic activities.
4. Reduction in CO2 from hyperventilation results in more alkaline body fluids.

 

Ans.C

 

Explanation. The air in mountainous region tends to be cool and dry. Body fluids can be rapidly lost through evaporation and result in dehydration. Therefore it is necessary to ensure adequate hydration for those exercising or engaged in sport at altitude.

 

Q12. Altitude training traditionally referred to as altitude camp, is the practice by some endurance athletes of training for several weeks at high altitude, preferably over 2,500 m (8,000 ft) above sea level. Which is an incorrect statement defining Adjustments or acclimatization need to be done for higher altitude exercises?

 

1. Takes 2 weeks at 2,300m and an additional week for every additional 600m in altitude.
2. Adjustments fully compensate for altitude.
3. Changes in local circulation may facilitate oxygen transport.
4. Training at altitude does not provide any improvement in sea-level performance.

 

Ans.B

 

Explanation Adjustments do not fully compensate for altitude. Max V02 is decreased 2% for every 300m above 1,500m. Thus, there is a drop in performance for endurance activities.

 

 

 

 

 

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Q13. Exercise in hot weather puts extra stress on your heart and lungs. Both the exercise itself and the air temperature increase your body temperature. Which is a false statement related to exercise in hot weather?

 

1. When exercising in the heat, muscles require oxygen to produce energy.
2. Repeated heat stress results in acclimatization in about 10 days of exposure.
3. Concentrated carbohydrate drinks impair gastric emptying and slow fluid replacement.
4. A hot, humid environment increases the evaporative cooling component.

 

Ans.D

 

Explanation. Hot, humid environments diminish the evaporative cooling component even with profuse sweating. Excess fluid loss can compromise cardiovascular function.

 

Q14. Fluid replacement or fluid resuscitation is the medical practice of replenishing bodily fluid lost through sweating, bleeding, fluid shifts or other pathologic processes. Fluids can be replaced via oral administration (drinking), intravenous administration, rectally, or hypodermoclysis, the direct injection of fluid into the subcutaneous tissue. Fluids administered by the oral and hypodermic routes are absorbed more slowly than those given intravenously. Which statement is incorrect in terms of fluid replacement?

 

1. Maintain plasma volume.
2. Colder fluids are emptied from the stomach more rapidly than room temperature fluids.
3. Concentrated carbohydrate drinks impair gastric emptying and slow fluid replacement.
4. fluids cannot  be injected directly into areas of muscle.

 

Ans.D

 

Explanation. In some cases, fluids will be injected directly into areas of muscle, or introduced to the body through the rectum. These techniques may be used when someone cannot keep fluids down, making an oral option unwise, but does not need immediate rehydration intravenously.

 

Q15. Obesity is a medical condition in which excess body fat has accumulated to the extent that it may have an adverse effect on health, leading to reduced life expectancy. Which statement is correct in terms of obesity?

 

1. Excess fat decreases the metabolic cost of activity.
2. Lesser fat slows conduction of heat to the periphery.
3. Cardiac output is better regulated
4. Activity can compromise thermoregulation in the obese with potentially fatal results.

 

Ans.D

 

Explanation. The addition of sports gear (e.g. football pads, helmets) coupled with a hot, humid environment and activity can compromise thermoregulation in the obese with potentially fatal results.

 

Q16. Flexibility, mobility and suppleness all mean the range of limb movement around joints. The objective of flexibility training is to improve the range of movement of the antagonistic muscles. Which statement is controversial in terms of flexibility?

 

1. Dynamic flexibility refers to the active ROM of a joint and is dependent upon the amount of tissue resistance met during active movement.
2. The musculotendinous unit elongates as the body segment moves through the ROM.
3. Static stretching uses the momentum of a moving body or a limb in an attempt to force it beyond its normal range of motion.
4. Passive flexibility is the degree to which a joint can be passively moved through the available ROM.

 

Ans.C

 

Explanation. Ballistic stretching uses the momentum of a moving body or a limb in an attempt to force it beyond its normal range of motion.

 

Q17. Stretching involves any therapeutic technique that lengthens shortened soft tissue structures and increases ROM. Which statement is incorrect in terms of stretching?

 

1. Type of stretching is determined by the type of force applied, the intensity of stretch, and duration of stretch.
2. Ballistic stretching uses the momentum of a moving body or a limb in an attempt to force it beyond its normal range of motion.
3. Isometric stretching involves the assistance of a partner who must fully understand what their role is otherwise the risk of injury is high.
4. Dynamic stretching consists of controlled leg and arm swings that take you gently to the limits of your range of motion.

 

Ans.C

 

Explanation. Assisted stretching involves the assistance of a partner who must fully understand what their role is otherwise the risk of injury is high. A partner can be employed to assist with Partner stretches and Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation (PNF) techniques.

 

Q18. Manual passive stretching takes the structures beyond the free ROM to elongate tissues beyond their resting length. Keeping this into mind which statement is incorrect in terms of manual passive stretching?

 

1. The stretch force is applied for at least 1530 seconds and repeated several times during a session.
2. Manual stretching is considered a short duration stretch, maintained statically for less time.
3. Intensity and duration depend on patient tolerance and therapist strength and endurance.
4. High intensity manual stretch, applied as long as possible is better.

 

Ans.D

 

Explanation. Low intensity manual stretch, applied as long as possible, is better tolerated and results in optimal improvement in tissue length with minimal risk of injury to any weakened tissue.

 

Q19. Ballistic stretching is a high-intensity very short-duration "bouncing" stretch. By contracting the opposite muscle group, the patient uses body weight and momentum to elongate the tight muscle. Which statement falsely justifies ballistic stretching?

 

1. Facilitates the stretch reflex, causing an increase in tension in the muscle that is being stretched.
2. It should not be performed after an injury or surgery.
3. The key to using ballistic stretching properly is to cool down with mild aerobic activity and vigorous bouncing motion.
4. Employs a repetitive bouncing motion to induce a stretch.

 

Ans.C

 

Explanation. The key to using ballistic stretching properly is to warm up with mild aerobic activity and then use a gentle (not vigorous) bouncing motion. Perhaps the risk is greater if one performs a vigorous ballistic motion without having warmed up the muscle.

 

Q20 Prolonged mechanical stretching is a low intensity external force (5 to 15 lb. to 10 percent of body weight) applied over a prolonged period by positioning a patient with weighted pulley and traction systems. Which statement falsely justifies prolonged mechanical stretching?

 

1. The Prolonged Mechanical stretching devices apply a very high intensity stretch force.
2. Dynamic splints are applied for 8 to 10 hours to increase ROM.
3. Prolonged stretch may be maintained for 20 to 30 minutes or as long as several hours.
4.  
5. Low-intensity prolonged mechanical stretching has been shown to be more

 effective than manual passive stretching with long-standing flexion contractures.

 

Ans.A

 

Explanation. The Mechanical stretching devices apply a very low intensity stretch force (low-load) over a prolonged period of time to create plastic deformation of tissues are stretch load which can be applied with a cuff weight.

 

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Q21. Active stretching occurs when voluntary, unassisted movement by the patient provides the stretch force to a joint. It requires strength and muscular contraction of the prime mover to actively stretch the antagonist muscle group. Which statement is incorrect in terms of active stretching?

 

1. The force is controlled by the patient and is considered low-intensity.
2. Duration is more than passive manual stretching.
3. Active stretching increases active flexibility and strengthens the agonistic muscles.
4. Many of the movements (or stretches) found in various forms of yoga are active stretches.

 

Ans.B

 

Explanation. Duration of Active stretching is equal to passive manual stretching or about 15 to 30 seconds and is limited by prime mover muscular endurance.

 

Q22. Active inhibition (facilitated stretching) refers to techniques in which the patient reflexively relaxes the muscle to be elongated prior to or during the stretching technique, e.g. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF).

 

1. Hold-Relax (HR) is a relaxation technique usually performed at the point of limited ROM in the agonist pattern.
2. Hold-Relax-Active Contraction (HRAC )is following hold-relax technique, active contraction into the newly gained range of the agonist pattern is performed.
3. Indications for active inhibition techniques include limitations in ROM caused by muscle looseness or muscle spasm.
4. Contract-Relax-Active Contraction (CRAC) is a relaxation technique usually performed at a point of limited ROM in the agonist pattern.

 

Ans.C

 

Explanation; Indications for active inhibition techniques include limitations in ROM caused by muscle tightness or muscle spasm. CR techniques may be more painful especially if muscle co-contraction is present.

 

Q23. Contractile tissue is nothing more than the tissue used in muscles. It is so called because the tissue is able to contract, either on demand or involuntary. Contractile tissue has a number of unique properties in order to make it contract and exert force. Which is the false statement about contractile tissue?

 

1. A muscle immobilized in a shortened position will have a decrease in the number of sarcomeres and an increase in connective tissue.
2. The sarcomere adaptation is transient.
3. The body removes the calcium from the tissue and the troponin-tropomyosin molecules, allowing returning to their normal shape.
4. A muscle that is lengthened over a prolonged period of time will have an increase in the number of sarcomeres in series. The muscle will adjust its length over time.

 

Ans.C

 

Explanation. Once the action has been completed, there will come a time for the contractile tissue to relax. In order for that to happen, those cross bridges must be disconnected. To accomplish this, the body removes the calcium from the tissue and the troponin-tropomyosin molecules, allowing them to return to their normal shape. When that happens, the connections between the myosin and actin are broken and the contractile tissue relaxes.

 

 

Q24. Tissue is a cellular organizational level intermediate between cells and a complete organism. Which is not a neurophysiologic property of contractile tissue?

 

1. Fast stretching especially applied at end range.
2. The Golgi tendon organ (GTO) inhibits contraction of the muscle.
3. A quick stretch to a muscle stimulates the alpha motoneurons and facilitates muscle contraction via the monosynaptic stretch reflex.
4. The muscle spindle monitors the velocity and length changes in muscle.

 

Ans.A

 

Explanation. Slow stretching especially applied at end range causes the GTO to fire and inhibit the muscle (autogenic inhibition), allowing the muscle to lengthen (stretch-protection reflex).

 

Q25 Non-contractile connective tissue including ligaments, tendons, joint capsules, fasciae and skin, can affect joint flexibility and requires remodeling to increase length. Which is the incorrect statement related to Non-contractile connective tissue?

 

1. Intensive stretching is usually not done every day in order to allow time for healing.
2. With aging, collagen loses its elasticity and tissue blood supply is decreased reducing healing capability.
3. High-magnitude loads over long periods increase the deformation of noncontractile tissue.
4. 15 to 20 minutes of low-intensity sustained stretch, repeated on 5 consecutive days, can cause a change in the length of muscle and connective tissue.

 

Ans.C

 

Explanation. Low-magnitude loads over long periods increase the deformation of noncontractile tissue, allowing a gradual rearrangement of collagen bonds (remodeling). This type of stretch is better tolerated by the patient.

 

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Q26. Contracture is the adaptive shortening of muscle or other soft tissues that cross a joint; contracture results in decreased ROM. Which statement is incorrect in terms of contracture?

 

1. Scar tissue adhesions develop in response to injury and the inflammatory response.
2. Irreversible contracture is a permanent loss of soft tissue extensibility that cannot be released by any surgical treatment.
3. Myotatic contracture (pertaining to muscle) involves a musculotendinous unit that adaptively increases with gain of ROM.
4. Adhesions can occur if tissue is immobilized in a shortened position for extended periods of time, resulting in a loss of mobility.

 

Ans.C

 

Explanation. Myotatic contracture (pertaining to muscle)involve a musculotendinous unit that has adaptively shortened with loss of ROM .Usually occurs without specific tissue pathology and in two-joint muscles such as the hamstrings, rectus femoris or gastrocnemius. Can typically be resolved in a short time with gentle stretching exercises and active inhibition techniques.

 

Q27 Relaxation of Muscles is a technique for reducing anxiety by alternately tensing and relaxing the muscles. Which statement is incorrect in terms of relaxation of muscles in heat?

 

1. The GTO sensitivity is increased which makes it more likely to fire and inhibit muscle tension.
2. Heat without stretching has maximum effect on long-term improvement in muscle flexibility.
3. Low-intensity active exercise performed prior to stretching will increase circulation.
4. Massage increases local circulation to the muscle and reduces muscle spasm and stiffness.

 

Ans.B

 

Explanation. Heat without stretching has little or no effect on long-term improvement in muscle flexibility. The combination of heat and stretching produces greater long-term gains in tissue length than stretching alone.

 

Q28. Flexibility training, or stretching, is probably the most neglected of all the components of a fitness program. Which is not a common error associated with mobility and flexibility training?

 

1. Passively forcing a joint beyond its normal ROM.
2. Aggressively stretching a patient with a newly united fracture or osteoporosis may result in fracture.
3. Overstretching of weak muscles, especially postural muscles that support the body against gravity.
4. Low-intensity, Long-duration stretching procedures on muscles.

 

Ans.D

 

Explanation. Common Errors Associated with Mobility and Flexibility Training relates to using high-intensity, short-duration stretching procedures on muscles and connective tissues that have been immobilized over a long time or recovering from injury or surgery.

 

Q29 Postural Stability Index (PSI), a newly proposed measure of stability, is a more valid measure of stability. The ankle stiffness, which is generally recognized as an indicator of balance, was evaluated with PSI and ES. Which is the incorrect statement related to Postural Stability Index (PSI)?

 

1. Stability control involves prolonged holding, an endurance function.
2. Proximal segments and trunk provide a stable base for functional movements.
3. Patients need to be progressed from small range to large range movements.
4. An individual maintains postural stability of the trunk during dynamic extremity movements.

 

Ans.C

 

Explanation. Patients with hyperkinetic movement disorders (e.g., ataxia) need to be progressed from large range to small range movements and finally to holding steady (stability control).

 

 

 

Q30. Proximal segments and trunk provide a stable base for functional movements. Which is a false statement related to dynamic stabilization, controlled mobility?

 

1. Distal segments are fixed while proximal segments are moving.
2. Movement normally occurs through increments of range.
3. An individual maintains postural stability of the trunk.
4. An individual maintains postural stability of the trunk while weight shifting.

 

Ans.C

 

Explanation. In dynamic stabilization, static-dynamic control an individual maintains postural stability of the trunk during dynamic extremity movements (e.g., reaching, kicking a ball).

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Q31. It is important to consider exercise protocols that effectively challenge core muscle groups and create adequate stability to perform functional activities. Which is not a guideline to develop postural stability?

 

1. Start training by teaching safe spinal ROM in a variety of basic postures. Teach chin tucking with axial extension.
2. Incorporate procedures to retrain kinesthetic awareness of postural position.
3. Incorporate procedures to retrain kinesthetic awareness of postural position.
4. The lower the center-of mass and larger the base-of-support, the greater the degree of postural challenge.

 

Ans.D

 

Explanation. To safely develop strength and endurance in the stabilizing muscles, practice maintained holding in a variety of postures. The higher the center-of mass and smaller the base-of-support, the greater the degree of postural challenge, e.g., sitting versus standing.

 

Q32. There are certain procedures to retrain kinesthetic awareness of postural position in order to teach the neutral pelvis position first to ensure a stable base. So,which of the following procedure is not appropriate for teaching the neutral pelvis position first to ensure a stable base?

 

1. Visual, verbal, and proprioceptive cues.
2. Focus on patient awareness of normal alignment of the spine and pelvis feel of the muscles contracting to maintain that position while exercising.
3. Emphasis is placed on strength and endurance of back multifidi and oblique abdominals rather than erector spinae.
4. Insist on Rhythmic Stabilization

 

 

Ans.D

Explanation. Rhythmic Stabilization is a technique to enhance stabilizing contractions and develop postural control which is simultaneous isometric contractions of both agonist and antagonist patterns performed without relaxation using careful grading of resistance.

 

Q33. Alternating isometric contractions between antagonists can enhance stabilizing contractions and develop postural control e.g., PNF techniques which of the following technique do not come under the sub head of PNF stretching?

 

1. Rhythmic Initiation
2. Rhythmic Stabilization
3. Hold Relax.
4. Kitchens sink exercises.

 

Ans.D

 

Explanation. Kitchen sink exercises is an intervention to Improve Balance which denotes the activities like heel-cord stretches, heel-rise , toe-offs, partial wall squats, single leg activities (side kicks, back kicks), marching in place, look-around(head and trunk rotation), hip circles.

 

Q34. The word "posture" comes from the Latin verb "ponere" which is defined as "to put or place. Which is not a common error associated with postural stability training?

 

1. Progressing too quickly or starting at too high a functional level for the patient to maintain postural stability.
2. Exercising past the point of fatigue, this is determined by the inability of the trunk.
3. Inadequate stretching of tight muscles.
4. Tight control of core muscles could place minimum stress on proximal structures.

 

Ans.D

 

Explanation- A common error which is usually found is inadequate control of core muscles could place excessive stress on proximal structures during functional activities e.g., the vertebrae and discs of the spine during sitting.

 

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Q35. An exercise ball is a ball constructed of elastic soft PVC with a diameter of approximately 35 to 85 centimeters (14 to 34 inches) and filled with air. The air pressure is changed by removing a valve stem and either filling with air or letting the ball deflate. It is most often used in physical therapy. Which of the following is not an advantage of stability ball training?

 

1. Promotes balance provides an unstable base of support, requiring continuous adjustments in balance.
2. Allows a safe, dynamic cardiovascular workout.
3. Used to increase tone in hypertonic patient.
4. Improves range of motion, allows safe stretching.

 

Ans- C

 

Explanation. Allows relaxation training, e.g., gentle bouncing combined with deep breathing. Gentle rocking can be used to decrease tone in hypertonic patient.

 

Q36. The knee joint joins the thigh with the leg and consists of two articulations: one between the femur and tibia, and one between the femur and patella. Which factor is not important in determining appropriate ball size?

 

1. Supine with ball under knees, the ball height should equal the distance between the greater trochanter and the knee.
2. Sitting on ball with feet flat, the ball height should place the hips and knees at 90 degree angles.
3. Movement of feet.
4.  Safe practice of falling.

 

Ans C

 

Explanation. Movement of the feet and/or the ball changes accordingly with the base of support and challenge balance.

 

Q37. Joint stability refers to the resistance offered by various musculoskeletal tissues that surround a skeletal joint. Which is not a necessary precaution need to be taken care in stability ball training?

 

1. Obese individuals, exceeding ball weight limits.
2. Ataxic patients with postural instability.
3. Requires adequate space around exercising individual
4. Increased pain with mobility exercises and degenerative joint disease.

 

Ans.B

 

Explanation. Basically in case of thermodynamics precautions are needed to be taken care of in case of Ataxic patients.

 

Q38. Balancing requires concurrent processing of inputs from multiple senses, including equilibrioception (from the vestibular system), vision, and perception of pressure and proprioception. Which is a goal and outcome of coordination and balance training among the following:

 

1. Aerobic capacity and endurance gets diffused.
2. Performance, independence, and safety are Performance, independence, and safety is improved in transfers.
3. Motor function gets interrupted.
4. Lack of Self-management symptoms.

 

Ans B

 

Explanation. Performance, independence, and safety are improved in transfers, gait, and locomotion is one of the basic goal of balance training.

 

 

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Q39. A balance board—which is an unstable standing surface that moves in different planes of motion—is commonly used to train balance. Which is not a training strategies to improve coordination and balance among the following?

 

1. Sensory cues are used to enhance motor performance.
2. Promote adaptability and generalize ability of skills.
3. Patient decision making skills are promoted.
4. Feedback given gradually improves initial performance.

 

Ans.D

 

Explanation. Feedback schedules are those feedback given frequently (after every trial) to improves initial performance. Feedback given less frequently (summed after a given number of trials or fading with decreasing frequency) improves retention of skills.

 

Q40. Compensatory strategies are utilized as appropriate to promote safety and early resumption of functional skills, e.g., the patient with delayed or absent recovery, multiple co-morbidities. Compensatory training may lead to learned nonuse of impaired extremities and delay recovery in those patients with recovery potential. Which of the following is an incorrect statement relating to compensatory strategies?

 

1. Safety is improved by use of appropriate assistive devices and shoes.
2. Safety cannot be improved by substitution.
3. Safety is improved through environmental adaptations.
4. Safety is improved by altering postural strategies.

 

Ans.B

 

Explanation. In strategies adopted by compensatory training Safety is improved by substitution: intact segments (sound limbs) for impaired segments; cognitive control for impaired motor control, e.g., the patient with ataxia.

 

Q41. Remediation/facilitation approaches reduce the effects of specific impairments; focus is on use of involved body segments (e.g., affected extremities in the patient with stroke).

Which of the following is an incorrect statement related to remediation?

 

1. Control is first achieved in holding (stability) before moving in a posture.
2. As quality of movement improves, speed of movement and control is increased.
3. Control is always developed in complex situations to focus on various body skills.
4. Specific techniques can be used to remediate impairments.

 

Ans.C

 

Explanation. Control is first developed in isolated movements and progressed to more complex movements. Developmental postures/activities can be used to isolate body segments and focus on specific body skills, e.g., weight shifts to improve hip control are practiced first in kneeling before standing.

 

Q42. Functional training is any type of exercise that has a direct relationship to the activities you perform in your daily life. Which one of the following is not an intervention to improve coordination in functional training?

 

1. Environment: patients with ataxia do better in a low stimulus environment; allows better utilization of cognitive strategies.
2. Specific exercise techniques to enhance stability
3. Progress to controlled mobility activities: weight shifting through increment
4. Use slow-reversal-hold (SRH) through decreasing ROM with ataxic movements.

 

Ans.C

 

Explanation. Progress to controlled mobility activities: weight shifting through decrements (decreasing) ROM progressing to stability (steady holding); moving in and out of postures (movement transitions).

 

 

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Q43. Sensory Training is mostly used for Patients with proprioceptive losses .Which one of the following statements is incorrect in terms of sensory training?

 

a.                   Light weights like wrist cuffs, ankle cuffs, weighted walkers, elastic resistance bands to increase proprioceptive loading.

b.                  Stabilization devices are used to overcome.

c.                   Visual compensation strategies are adopted.

d.                  Patients with visual losses benefit from cognitive training strategies along with environmental adaptations and assistive devices.

 

Ans.B

 

Explanation. Stabilization devices, e.g., air splints, soft neck collars, stabilize body segments and eliminate unwanted movement are used in functional training to improve coordination.

 

Q44. When exercising the ability to balance, one is said to be balancing. Which of the following is not an intervention to improve balance among the following?

 

a.       Floor-to-standing rises

b.      Training of change-of-support strategies.

c.       Weight shifts

d.      Postural awareness training.

 

Ans.A

 

Explanation. Floor-to-standing rises are the functional training activities in which patient are advised to practice rising from floor to standing in the event of a fall: e.g., side-sit to quadruped to kneeling to half-kneeling to standing transitions.

 

Q45. Functional training activities are a classification of exercise which involves training the body for the activities performed in daily life. Functional training may lead to better muscular balance and joint stability. Which of the following is not a functional training activity among the following?

 

1. Sit-to-stand (STS) and sit-down (SIT) activities.
2. Elevation activities
3. Gait activities
4. Kitchen sinks exercises.

 

Ans.D

 

Explanation. Kitchen sink exercises is an intervention to improve balance which consist of heel-cord stretches, heel-rise, toe-offs, partial wall squats, single leg activities (side kicks, back kicks), marching in place, look-around (head and trunk rotation), hip circles. Progression from bilateral upper extremity (UE) touch-down support to unilateral UE support to no UE support.

 

Q46. Balance training is a type of exercise which is designed to improve balance and proprioception, the sensation of knowing where the body and its joints are in space. Which of the following is not a disturbed balance activity among the following?

 

1. Therapist-initiated manual perturbations.
2. Stability ball training
3. Dual-task training
4. Wobble board/equilibrium boards

 

Ans.C

 

Explanation. Dual-task training is a functional training activity which means standing or walking, practice simultaneously DE activities (e.g., bouncing a ball, catching or throwing a ball); in standing, practice LE activities (e.g., kicking a ball, tracing letters with one foot).

 

Q47. A sensory system is a part of the nervous system responsible for processing sensory information. Which change is incorrect due to the effects of sensory changes?

 

1. Somatosensory changes
2. Visual changes
3. Vestibular changes
4. Gait activities

 

Ans.D

 

Explanation. Gait activities is a practice of walking forwards, backwards, sideward; slow to fast; normal BOS to narrowed BOS; wide turns to the right and left; 3600 turns; head turns right and left; crossed-step walking and braiding; over and around obstacles rather than a change.

 

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Q48. In balance training, the goal is to increase the body's agility, and to get someone in touch with his or her center of gravity. Which one of the following is a false prevention to improve balance?

 

1. Assist patient in identification of fall risk factors.
2. Lifestyle counseling
3. Assist the patient about the harmful effects of a sedentary lifestyle.
4. Assist in monitoring adequate nutritional intake.

 

Ans.D

 

Explanation. Assisting in monitoring adequate nutritional intake is a goal, outcome, and intervention of nutritional deficiency.

 

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Q49. Aerobic endurance training improves aerobic capacity by 5% to 25% in previously untrained, healthy adults. The magnitude of improvement is primarily dependent upon the initial level of physical fitness. Which is a false intervention to improve aerobic capacity and endurance among the following?

 

1. Pace pedaling on a cycle ergometer; progression is from slow to fast.
2. Treadmill walking: focus on velocity control; progression is from slow to fast. Safety harness can be worn to provide partial body weight support (BWS) if patient is unstable
3. Stretching exercises
4. Manual resistance like PNF patterns cannot be used.

 

Ans.D

 

Explanation. Manual resistance like PNF patterns can be used to promote synergistic control, improve timing using techniques of slow reversals or slow reversal hold.

 

 

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Q50: Homeostasis regulated through thirst mechanisms and renal function via circulating antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Which of the following is called hypokalemia?

 

A) an excess of body fluids with expansion of interstitial fluid volume.
B) excessive loss of body fluids or fluid output exceeds fluid intake.
C) decreased potassium in the blood.
D) excess of potassium in the blood; common in acute renal failure.

Ans. C

 

Explanations: Hypokalemia refers to the condition in which the concentration of potassium (K+) in the blood is low. Normal serum potassium levels are between 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L, and at least 95% of the body's potassium is found inside cells, with the remainder in the blood.

 

 

 

Q1. Wound debridement is removal of necrotic or infected tissue that interferes with wound healing. Which of the following is true with respect to wound debridement:

 

1. Allows examination of ulcer, determination of extent of wound
2. Decreases bacterial concentration in wound;
3. Improves wound healing.
4. Increases spread of infection, i.e., cellulitis or sepsis.

 

Ans. D

 

Explanation: Cellulitis is a diffuse inflammation of connective tissue with severe inflammation of dermal and subcutaneous layers of the skin. Cellulitis can be caused by normal skin flora or by exogenous bacteria, and often occurs where the skin has previously been broken: cracks in the skin, cuts, blisters, burns, insect bites, surgical wounds, or sites of intravenous catheter insertion.

 

Pg201.

 

Q2. Electrical stimulation is a treatment modality utilized by physical therapists that uses an electrical current to cause a single muscle or a group of muscles to contract. This contaction helps strengthen injured muscles and promotes healing. Which of the following is false with respect to electrical stimulation:

 

1. Uses capacitive coupled electrical current to transfer energy to a wound, improve circulation, facilitate debridement, enhance tissue repair.
2. Continuous waveform application with indirect current
3. High-voltage pulsed current (HVPC)
4. Microcurrent electrical stimulation (MENS)

 

Ans. B

Explanation: Waveform means the shape and form of a signal such as a wave moving in a solid, liquid or gaseous medium. In many cases the medium in which the wave is being propagated does not permit a direct visual image of the form. In these cases, the term 'waveform' refers to the shape of a graph of the varying quantity against time or distance.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q3. Nutrition is the provision, to cells and organisms, of the materials necessary (in the form of food) to support life. Many common health problems can be prevented or alleviated with a healthy diet. Which of the following is false with respect to nutritional considerations?

 

1. Delayed wound healing associated with malnutrition and poor hydration.
2. Provide adequate hydration: twelve 12-oz glasses of non-caffeine fluids per day unless contraindicated.
3. Provide adequate nutrition: frequent high calorie/ high-protein meals
4. Patients with trauma stress and burns require higher intake.

 

Ans. B

 

Explanation: Water hydration is water chemically combined with a substance in such a way that it can be removed, as by heating, without substantially changing the chemical composition of the substance.

 

 

Q4. A therapeutic effect is a consequence of a medical treatment of any kind, the results of which are judged to be desirable and beneficial. This is true whether the result was expected, unexpected, or even an unintended consequence of the treatment. An adverse effect, on the other hand, is a harmful and undesired effect. Which of the following is true with respect to therapeutic positioning to relieve pressure and tissue reperfusion in case of injury prevention or reduction?

 

1. In bed: turning or repositioning schedule every 2 hours during acute and rehabilitation phases.
2. In bed: turning or repositioning schedule every 5 hours during acute and rehabilitation phases.
3. In wheelchair: wheelchair push-ups every 50 minutes.
4. In wheelchair: wheelchair push-ups every 5 hours.

 

Ans. A

Explanation: Rehabilitation is a treatment or treatments designed to facilitate the process of recovery from injury, illness, or disease to as normal a condition as possible.

 

 

Q5. In dermatology, an abrasion is a wound caused by superficial damage to the skin, no deeper than the epidermis. Which of the following is not a unique technique to ensure skin protection, avoid friction, shear or abrasion injury?

 

1. Use of cornstarch, lubricants, pad protectors, thin film dressings, or hydrocolloid dressings over friction risk sites
2. Use of turning and draw sheets; trapeze, manual or electric lifts.
3. Dragging, not lifting
4. Use of transfer boards for sliding wheelchair transfers.

 

Ans. C

 

Explanation: Hydrocolloid dressings: Made of Sodium Car boxy methyl cellulose and gelatin combination, act as highly absorbent dressing providing an ideal moist wound healing environment.

 

 

Q6. The NICE clinical guideline on pressure relieving devices makes recommendations about how the risk of developing a pressure ulcer can be assessed and how pressure ulcers can be prevented by using devices designed to reduce pressure. Which of the following is a correct explanation of the given type of pressure-relieving device?

 

1. Static devices: use if patient cannot assume a variety of positions; examples include alternating pressure air mattresses, fluidized air or high-air-loss bed.
2. Dynamic devices: use if patient can assume a variety of positions; examples include foam, air, or gel mattress overlays; water-filled mattresses; pillows or foam wedges, protective padding (heel relief boots)
3. Seating supports: use for chair-bound or wheelchair-bound patients; examples include cushions made out of foam, gel, air, or some combination.
4. Seating supports: use if patient cannot assume a variety of positions; examples include alternating pressure air mattresses, fluidized air or high-air-loss bed.

 

Ans. C

 

Explanation: A wheelchair is a wheeled mobility device in which the user sits. The device is propelled either manually (by turning the wheels by the hand) or via various automated systems.

 

 

Q7. Maceration refers to skin changes seen when moisture is trapped against the skin for a prolonged period. The skin will turn white or gray, softens and wrinkles. Macerated skin is more permeable and prone to damage from friction and irritants.  Which of the following is false for avoiding maceration injury?

 

1. Prevent moisture accumulation
2. Temperature elevation where skin contacts support surface
3. Use of absorbent pads, brief or panty pad
4. Do not use ointments, creams, and skin barriers prophylactically in perineal and perianal areas

 

Ans. D

 

Explanation: An ointment is a viscous semisolid preparation used topically on a variety of body surfaces. These include the skin and the mucous membranes of the eye (an eye ointment), vagina, anus, and nose. An ointment may or may not be medicated.

 

 

 

 

Pg204

 

Q8. An immune system is a system of biological structures and processes within an organism that protects against disease by identifying and killing pathogens and tumor cells. Which of the following is not included in the immune system?

 

1. immune cells
2. central immune structures where immune cells are produced
3. peripheral immune structures
4. HBOT

 

Ans. D

Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT), is the medical use of oxygen at a level higher than atmospheric pressure.

 

 

Q9. An immune system consists of immune cells. There are several different types of immune cells. Which of the following is an incorrect explanation of immune cells?

 

1. Antigens (immunogen) are molecules that link immune cells with other tissues and organs.
2. Lymphocytes (T and B lymphocytes) are the primary cells of the immune system.
3. CD molecules (e.g. CD4 helper cells) serve as master regulators of the immune response by influencing the function of all other immune cells.
4. Recognition of foreign threat from self (autoimmune responses) is mediated by MHC membrane molecules.

 

Ans. A

 

Explanation: An antigen (immunogen) is a foreign molecule that elicits the immune response. Antibodies or immunoglobulins are the proteins that are engaged to tag antigens.

 

 

Q10. The thymus is the primary central gland of the immune system. It is located behind the sternum above the heart and extends into the neck region to the lower edge of the thyroid gland. Which of the following is false with respect to thymus?

 

1. It is fully developed at birth and reaches maximum size at puberty.
2. It further increases in size
3. It is slowly replaced by adipose tissue
4. It produces mature T lymphocytes

 

Ans. B

 

Explanation: In histology, adipose tissue or body fat or just fat is loose connective tissue composed of adipocytes. It is technically composed of roughly only 80% fat; fat in its solitary state exists in the liver and muscles.